Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 07:36
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
How did you know you weren't the narc?
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Woodruff departs rehab outing after taking liner to elbow - MLB.com
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.